P-8 Naval Flight Officer (NFO) Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) Practice Exam

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• A DIFAR buoy takes approximately how many seconds to descend to 1,000 feet?
• The message releasing authority may be delegated to the other officers on the aircrew.
• (T/F) You must run the ECS Draw-Thru fan, valve, and maintenance alarm test even if the system is already operational.
• In BIT details, what does the notation SRL 'x' Unsuccessful Launch (1-3) indicate?
• What is the effect of installing BRU Brackets instead of an actual BRU on TOMS?
• What is the minimum psi per loaded store station required prior to takeoff to ensure jettison is possible?
• Which data is cleared from the FMC when MCDS data is sent during ground operations?
• The primary purpose of egress path lighting is to aid in emergency cabin evacuation when other cabin lighting is obscured.
• Emergency exit lights will operate for a minimum of how many minutes, and the battery packs will fully recharge in how many minutes when aircraft power is available?
• Which statement about MOSA CNF/NET updates is true?
• Failure to ensure observers are posted inside and outside of the aircraft, all external doors and windows are closed, external headsets are unplugged, and individuals are at least 17 feet away from the aircraft prior to HF radio transmissions may result in injury to personnel.
• The main cabin smoke detection system is interfaced with the flight cabin warning systems.
• The capture gate for an Expendable (undesignated) fly-to-point is __________.
• Emergency exit lights test duration must not exceed how many minutes?
• Jettison All and External Jettison can be performed without the SMS and SCU power turned on.
• Which speed is permissible for the MK-54 REXTORP/EXTORP?
• Following a preflight, the mission crew oxygen mask Normal/100% selector should be placed in Normal.
• (T/F) With an EJECTOR PRESSURE warning, weapon release or jettison from the affected station(s) is still possible.
• According to TEM model, an Error is defined as _____
• Who has the discretion to place the Main Cabin First Aid Kit at the mid-cabin mission storage?
• The minimum safe distances for SATCOM 1 S5 antenna HERP, HERF, and HERO are:
• Which statement correctly describes the APU fire memory items inside the aircraft?
• The term that completes the sentence 'A____ is an operating procedure, technique, etc. that may result in injury, death, or loss of aircraft if not carefully observed or followed' is which word?
• (T/F) The Resist method of identifying and repairing errors refers to the human-ware that the aircrewman has developed to aid in the detection of potential errors.
• During CSU IBIT, communication may be lost or degraded for how long?
• If moisture is detected in the fixed oxygen regulator, switch to Emergency mode and keep until the lens clears; the procedure may be repeated.
• Under APS operation, when weapon bay stores are not loaded, a single psi charge to all SSL/SRL launchers to allow about 60 sonobuoys is what value?
• Selecting Allow Degraded Weapon Release prior to actual degraded conditions will override which and may induce which?
• TACAN being in transmit mode (T/R or A/A) with the MIDS Mode Switch ON can cause what?
• The lavatory mini oxygen mask is suitable for fighting a fire.
• For mid-cabin firefighting duties, what must be done with the lights at the mid-cabin control panel?
• Which ditching stations are assigned to the STBD Overwing evacuation station?
• (T/F) Use of the standby control switch bypasses all safety circuits for the airstair.
• The SLS high-pressure tank red indicator threshold is 860 psi.
• On-station altitude is limited to ___ feet AGL.
• As part of the window damage checklist, if an outer pane is cracked or shattered, you should:
• The Emergency Destruction Procedure references zeroization of crypto keys. Which item is specifically zeroized?
• Setting Tactics Mode to Deep in Torpedo Attack TD results in which effect on Target Location input?
• Which statement about APU fire indications outside the aircraft is true?
• A maximum of ____ days may elapse between the date of the initial ground evaluation is commenced and the date the NATOPS evaluation flight is satisfactorily completed.
• True or False: If the BRU Power Switch is not in the ON position, weapon release is disabled, and weapons located at that station can still be jettisoned in flight.
• Selective jettison is available during SMS start-up mode.
• The EJECTOR PRESSURE warning indicates that weapon release or jettison from the affected station(s) is still possible.
• Condition I requires headsets and seatbelts to be worn and fastened during flight. This statement is:
• MAP configuration is accessed by selecting which option on the common controls panel?
• Prior to selecting SATCOM mode on the SATCOM TD, it is necessary to set the radio to ______ using the MAP.
• The Mk-54 lightweight torpedo uses _____ for propulsion.
• Which system must be powered on at SPDS to enable the Zeroize and Sanitize switches?
• With KY100 online, failure to turn the HF radio off before initiating secure voice communication will cause the HF radio to silence all incoming secure voice communications. Which term completes the sentence?
• Which term describes the ability to direct and coordinate the activities of other crew members and encourage the aircrew to act together as a team?
• (T/F) If either GEN1 or GEN2 are powered OFF, L2 and L1 SMOKE VALVE STATUS displays SMOKE.
• Is it acceptable to use the MASTER zeroize switch on Zeroize Panel 1 during normal post-flight operations?
• If a venting sonobuoy is determined to be in an SRL or SSL, the mission crew should ______.
• When securing E810 via the Rack Power Cutoff switch, pull the ______ to secure backup 20VDC battery power to V/UHF 1.
• Which action is required to prevent loss of the survival kit during mooring line operations?
• If TACAN is transmitting and the MIDS Mode Switch is ON, what may occur?
• Securing DIRCM power for BuNo 169324 and AFC-205 may cause APY-10 to become inoperable.
• The lavatory oxygen bottle provides oxygen sufficient to move from the lavatory to a location with a larger capacity oxygen system.
• Which scratchpad message indicates that takeoff speeds were deleted?
• Prior to conducting HF radio checks, an outside observer shall ensure all personnel are at least ______ feet from any external surface of the aircraft.
• In SPDS failsafe mode, what indication does the mission crew observe?
• Approximately how many DON OXYGEN signs are illuminated in the main cabin and lavatory when cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 feet?
• Applying weapon power enables LRASM pitot heat, and close proximity or contact with the LRASM pitot tube during this condition presents a burn hazard.
• Which term describes the ability to develop short-term and long-term plans and coordinate resources?
• Which indicator signals cabin altitude exceedance in the main cabin?
• Which Scratchpad message confirms that takeoff speeds were deleted?
• The ability to develop short-term and long-term and contingency plans and to coordinate, allocate, and monitor aircrew and aircraft resources is called what?
• On BuNo 169324 and subsequent with AFC-205, securing DIRCM power may result in inoperability of the APY-10.
• The capture gate for a designated Torpedo fly-to-point distance is
• With a single 3000 psi charge to all SSL/SRL launchers, approximately how many sonobuoys can be launched?
• Failure to turn on the weapons bay heater when loaded may result in damage to affected stores.
• During a rack power cutoff, the SPDA commands which equipment to LOCKOUT?
• True/False: Failure to ensure the Weapon Bay doors are open prior to executing JETTISON ALL may result in damage to the system or erroneous flight deck indications that the doors are closed.
• List the components Bulk MCDS applies power to.
• When assigning ditching stations, should additional aircrew be assigned to stations as far aft as possible?
• On which page would you see the RESET prompt indicating SPDS is in failsafe mode?
• In an armed configuration, which statement is true regarding how weapon release can occur?
• What is the maximum bank angle allowed for coordinated turns when employing the AN/SSQ-53F/G?
• Which of the following correctly describes a MOSA call?
• If the airstair must be extended from the interior to facilitate evacuation and AC power has been secured, the battery switch needs to remain ON and the standby function utilized to extend the ladder.
• The Mk-54 lightweight torpedo propulsion uses Otto Fuel II. Which of the following is true about Otto Fuel II?
• A standoff call shall consist of which elements?
• Where is the INMARSAT antenna located on the aircraft?
• When intending to ditch and alerting the crew to the time until impact, the flight deck should also _________.
• Indications of an APU fire outside the aircraft include which of the following?
• What is the maximum KCAS allowed to jettison a venting sonobuoy?
• The INMARSAT system uses the KG-175D for in-line data encryption via the MCDS.
• SPDA fault indicators are displayed in what format?
• Which of the following is NOT a function of SPDS?
• In the event of a loss of cabin pressurization, mission crew shall __________, regulators _________.
• The RIFL solenoid energizes when which conditions are all met?
• Using Master Arm will result in an armed weapon release; jettison is the only means of weapon release in an unarmed configuration.
• Which statement about BRU interfaces on stations 5, 7, and 9 is correct when weapons are loaded?
• Hung buoy is indicated at the MCW by the following?
• Do not depressurize the airplane or open the free-fall chute above _____ feet unless all crew members are on supplemental oxygen.
• After selecting Wpn & Buoy on the Kill Stores tab of the STORES PEP, failure to drop the buoy within its airspeed limits may result in damage to what?
• The minimum safe distances for Radar HERP, HERF, and HERO are the following values in feet: 169, 95, and 302 respectively. Which of the following represents those distances in the correct order?
• Under Condition V, whom must be at the assigned ditching stations?
• During Mission Equipment Power On, failure to wait for all __________ to illuminate Green before turning MCW Power Switches on may result in the system not initializing properly.
• Which combination correctly represents ESAL and ESBL values for AGM-84D/AGM-84J?
• The portable oxygen bottles flash "Low" for 1 minute prior to supply being exhausted.
• MMAP is located in which rack?
• The MMAP tie-point connects all users in battery power and allows for use of which intercom mode?
• In egress path lighting, which color marks the floor aisle way?
• In BIT details, what does the notation SSL 'x' Unsuccessful Launch (1-3) indicate?
• Which of the following correctly lists the locations of the first-aid kits?
• INMARSAT voice communications are dedicated to the flight deck.
• If before a cabinet switch is toggled OFF, an SSPC was manually placed in LOCKOUT or turned ON individually not via an operations menu command, the SSPC will revert to the OFF state when the rack switch is toggled ON.
• During a smoke/fumes emergency, aircrew communications are established on ALL CALL.
• The emergency jettison function is the highest priority SMS function and interrupts all other stores processing. True or False?
• Single AN/SSQ-53F/G employment limits are which of the following?
• The High Pressure Air Compressor Systems (HPAC) provide ______ psi of high pressure dry air to BRUs.
• The NO VSPD flag on the PFD indicates that takeoff speeds have been cleared.
• Which AAS item should be completed no more than 60 days prior to NATOPS flight evaluation if an AAS-equipped aircraft is not available?
• What is the maximum employment speed for the MK-54 REXTORP/EXTORP?
• Which of the following is NOT a listed use for the free fall chute?
• What hazard is associated with LRASM pitot heat when weapon power is applied?
• Which RF safety distance statement is true?
• In health status indicators, which color denotes health is not known or there is no response?
• (T/F) Only one IC segment may be placed in active TX mode at a time.
• Which border indicates a selective jettison on the Stores Status Display?
• EGIs must be operating for the mission subsystems to operate properly.
• If emergency exit lights test exceeds 10 minutes, remaining battery power may not illuminate during an actual loss of power.
• Employment of the MK-39 MOD 2 EMATT is restricted to ___ KCAS max airspeed.
• Emergency Destruction Procedure is used to rapidly sanitize the mission equipment, including destruction of classified material and zeroization of crypto key(s). What is the purpose of this procedure?
• The flight deck should indicate if the ditch is considered immediate to alert the crew when a ditch is imminent.
• What is the ESAL maximum release timeline (in seconds) after launch for AGM-84D/AGM-84J?
• During the MK-54 Launch Checklist, the EO/IR turret orientation toward the weapon bay is required in all turret configurations.
• The following are mandatory items for the Mission Crew Vest Configuration: which option correctly reflects the items?
• If a kill store fails to release following a manual release command or automatic release command, the crew shall execute the Weapon Release Checklist as appropriate.
• For BuNo 169324 and subsequent with AFC-205, the DIRCM-PROCESSOR CONTACTOR LSK must be turned on.
• During a SFF situation, the crewmember performing aft fire fighting duties should open the aft upper and lower lobe access panels (T/F).
• When the Don Oxygen sign illuminates in the cabin, you should don the oxygen mask and verify the regulator is set to 100%, and establish crew communications as required.
• For armed stores release, the maximum psi range is 6000 psi. Which statement reflects this range?
• Which statement describes the E880 rack and power racks E101, E102, E113, and E114 regarding smoke detection?
• Which minimum distance must individuals be away from the aircraft prior to HF radio transmissions?
• What is the highest priority SSPC on the FND FLR page of SPDS?
• Where are liferafts stored onboard the aircraft?
• Crew and passenger capacity shall be limited to the number of crew seats and safety equipment available for the planned mission.
• An Unsuccessful Launch indication for a SRL/SSL will be accompanied by a ___ chicklet.
• On fixed oxygen, at the first sign of moisture or condensation, the regulator should be switched to which mode?
• Which combination of conditions is indicated by red radar altitude?
• Which power racks do not contain a smoke detection system?
• Which statement correctly describes the relationship between DIRCM power and APY-10 operation for BuNo 169324 with AFC-205?
• Power should remain on for at least how many minutes after switch activation to allow Zeroize and Sanitize switches to function?
• Is it true that pulling only the MSN TRU circuit breakers in racks E101 and E102 will secure mission power?
• Which ditching stations are assigned to the FWD service door evacuation station?
• If a system is powered up via the OPERATIONS menu page and none of its SSPCs are TRIPPED, can you use the SSPC menu pages to secure component power?
• What four actions should operators perform during Condition III checks?
• The main cabin smoke detection system is not interfaced with the flight cabin warning systems.
• If SFF is determined to originate from the SPDS-CDU, power to only the SPDS-CDU can be secured through which component?
• The FWD service door evacuation station is assigned to 1-4 and 10-15.
• An SSPC in LOCKOUT status shall not be reset without consulting maintenance due to risk of injury or fire.
• Failsafe mode is recognized by which prompt on the SPDA BIT HOME page?
• Which indication on the PFD indicates that takeoff V speeds have been cleared when MCDS data is sent to the FMC during ground operations?
• In a fire indication scenario, the COTAC will report MOSA and initial heading to the nearest land. This statement is:
• In FAILSAFE mode, the mission crew should inform the flight deck to allow for changes in which areas?
• Portable oxygen bottles are equipped with a microphone that can be attached to the service interphone/ICS system to establish communications. This statement is:
• Which item is included in the Mission Crew Vest Configuration as signaling devices?
• Failing to retrieve the survival kit from its zippered pocket before cutting the mooring line may result in loss of the survival kit. This statement is:
• Once the APU reaches 100% speed with the APU GEN OFF light illuminated, wait how many minutes before using it as a bleed air/electrical power source?
• Before entering the weapons bay, which four items are you verifying on the Ground Maintenance Control Panel?
• Which statement about theUNI-PAC III SAR Kit carriage is correct?
• What is the maximum number of times an SSPC can be reset after a trip due to overcurrent in a single flight leg?
• What color border around a weapon station indicates the weapon is initializing?
• The SPDS enters which mode when the system is unresponsive, preserving all power settings and preventing power securing via SPDS or rack cut-off switches?
• Which of the following is a true statement about SMOKE VALVE STATUS when GEN1 or GEN2 are OFF?
• (T/F) The TEM statement about the Resist method is accurate.
• Turning off E860's rack power cutoff switch will cause the ESM Chiller to lock out.
• Which components are controlled by SCU 7?
• Providing electrical power to a fire source can prevent effective fire fighting or restart the fire. Do not attempt to ______ until directed by TACCO.
• (T/F) A fire extinguished by Halon may produce decomposition by-products, characterized by a sharp acrid odor that may be harmful.
• Cold weather survival suit location for ditching stations 1-8 is located at:
• Which statement is true about routinely using the Rack Power Cutoff Switch for shutdown?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of informing the flight deck in FAILSAFE mode?
• The correct visual indication of flowing oxygen from a crewmember oxygen mask panel is:
• When the jump seat is occupied, which ditching stations are reserved for the jump seat occupant?
• Which of the following power racks are specified as not containing a smoke detection system?
• From which part of the sonobuoy storage rack should you remove the sonobuoys to significantly lower rack failure risk?
• Should you operate the APU if the APU DET INOP light fails to illuminate?
• Which component is not in the Bulk MCDS power list?
• The NATOPS evaluation flight must be completed within how many days after the start of the initial ground evaluation?
• Which BIT detail label indicates an unsuccessful SSL launch?
• The ACE BITE RESET button used for the APY-10 radar is located in which rack?
• On the ground, SPDA bit failures (displayed with two-character groupings such as P3XX-XX) require maintenance action before flight.
• Which of the following is not inspected by the crewmember assigned forward cabin duties during a SFF?
• In an ECS Draw-thru low flow situation, if the aft cabin temperature exceeds _____, continue to decrease mission systems load?
• On the Pneumatics System TD, the SLS high-pressure tank read-out indicates red below what psi?
• Interference from the sonobuoy VHF transmitter when operating the AN/SSQ-53G in RF channels between which ranges prevents the GPS receiver from determining the buoy position?
• Before airstair retraction the following must be done (select all that apply):
• If the rack power cutoff switch is toggled from ON to OFF, the SPDA commands all mission equipment SSPCs for that rack to which state?
• The Harpoon launch sequence may take up to __ seconds from ITL to last weapon release for ESAL and up to __ seconds from ITL to last weapon release for ESBL.
• (T/F) PA permission for individual MAP consoles can be modified through TOMS.
• ______ takes precedence over all other communications at the Mission Audio Panel.
• In Failsafe Mode, the Rack Cutoff switches will function to remove power from the racks.
• During a jettison all sequence, weapon bay stations are released from the center out, in order ___________.
• What happens to takeoff V speeds stored in the FMC when stores inventory is updated after the initial confirmation?
• What is the minimum oxygen bottle pressure when cabin temperature is 30C?
• The emergency jettison function is the highest priority SMS function and interrupts all other stores processing. Which statement best describes this?
• To operate the TACLANE, which statement is correct?
• In the event of smoke, fire, or fumes, no more than how many passes should be completed prior to informing the flight crew of the initial assessment?
• HF Radio HERP, HERF, and HERO minimum safe distances are given in feet as which triple?
• Which statement about BRU interfaces on stations 5, 7, and 9 when weapons are loaded is correct?
• When extended, the forward EO/IR sensor package partially shadows the lower _____ antenna. Which antenna is affected?
• During selective zeroize, which option lists the duration for zeroize correctly?
• What color chicklet accompanies an Unsuccessful Launch indication for a SRL/SSL?
• How many and at what locations are liferafts stored onboard the aircraft?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the four actions performed during Condition III checks?
• After powering on the APY-10 Radar, what additional step needs to be completed?
• Factors that increase the likelihood of an error being committed, or of not accomplishing the mission, are called what?
• With power secured to a SCU, jettisoning the store via JETTISON ALL is possible.
• What is the capacity of the portable oxygen bottles onboard?
• The statement 'Selective jettison mode does not require operational MCDS or SMS software control' is true or false?
• A____ is an operating procedure, technique, etc. that may result in injury, death, or loss of aircraft if not carefully observed or followed
• Before annotating WEAPONS & SONOBUOYS SSPCs as LOCKOUT or TRIPPED, what must be done?
• Which system performs electrical power distribution, control, and protection to mission systems, the fuel subsystem, and selected aircraft utility systems?
• During a SFF, which forward cabin duties item is not inspected?
• The oxygen mask microphone is enabled when which panel door is opened and disables which microphone?
• MAP is used to establish aircrew communications during a smoke/fumes emergency.
• What is the ESBL maximum timeline (in seconds) before launch for AGM-84D/AGM-84J?
• Which outcome may occur if SSC STS lights are not extinguished or if less than 10 minutes have passed from power off before Mission Equipment Shutdown?
• Which component is primarily affected when E860's rack power cutoff switch is turned off?
• Which statement best describes the contents of the LPU-32/P survival pouch?
• Operating the weapon bay door on the ground using the flight deck weapon control panel when the only source of hydraulic pressure is from electrically driven hydraulic pumps may cause damage. True or False?
• The high pressure tanks for the SLS, located in the top of each rotary launcher, hold enough pressure for how many buoy launches?
• The UNI-PAC III SAR Kit is authorized for carriage on stations?
• Which RF channel ranges should be avoided to prevent GPS buoy position determination when operating the AN/SSQ-53G?
• Which color on the health status indicator indicates degraded state or invalid data?
• True or False: Sonobuoy employment of SSQ-53, SSQ-62, SSQ-101, and SSQ-125 above 1.0G is authorized in steady, constant altitude, coordinated turns up to +/- 45 degrees AOB for single and collocated releases.
• Memory items for an APU fire when inside the aircraft include which actions?
• Radar crypto keys are zeroized at Zeroize Panel 1 on the E810 rack.
• The HSD 440 Terminal for the INMARSAT system is located where?
• Expendable (undesignated) fly-to-point capture gate distance is
• During Condition V, all crewmembers and passengers shall take assigned ditching stations with headsets on and which item selected?
• During E810 operations, pull the Communications V/UHF RT 1 BAT cb to perform which action?
• The capture gate for a designated Torpedo weapons fly-to-point is___.
• What minimum psi per loaded store station is required before takeoff to ensure jettison, a repeat equivalent value?
• Cooling air is required whenever electrical power is applied to mission equipment. True or False?
• When loading sonobuoys into the Sonobuoy Stowage Rack, which end faces which end?
• In response to a fire indication onboard with a full tactical crew, the COTAC will perform which actions?
• For completion of a Harpoon WEAPON ABORTED checklist resulting in RTB, weapon must remain on airplane in SAFE/ARM area for_____ hours following ITL or CTS.
• After the required wait, which systems should be secured?
• Once inventory has been accepted by the SMS, the button is dimmed and unavailable. If a mistake is made, the operator must restart the SMS.
• (T/F) Under the Threat and Error Management (TEM) model, the two types of threats mission crews should consider are Kinetic and Non-Kinetic.
• When operating the PRC-149, to maximize range the antenna should be held so that the antenna is ________ when transmitting, and the antenna should be ________ to the line of sight to the SAR aircraft.
• The minimum safe distance to HERO is how many feet?
• The two-character grouping example P3XX-XX refers to SPDA fault indicators.
• After powering on the APY-10 Radar, what is the required action sequence?
• If a post-acceptance inventory discrepancy is discovered, what is the required action?
• The ESM Chiller is not placed into a lockout state when E860's rack power cutoff switch is turned off.
• Injuries to persons or damage to equipment may occur if the door is left open in winds greater than how many knots, or if the service or entry door is operated in winds greater than how many knots?
• The STBD Overwing evacuation station is assigned to stations 5-9 and 16-22.
• Where are the high pressure tanks for the SLS located?
• The crash axe is located where?
• When BRU Brackets are installed instead of an actual BRU, TOMS will falsely sense a generic weapon attached due to what installed on the station?
• Do not depressurize the airplane or open the free-fall chute above _____ feet unless all crew members are on supplemental oxygen.
• The forward and overwing exits serve as primary egress for the forward crew.
• MCDS can take between how many minutes to complete start-up?
• (T/F) Good judgment should be exercised before deciding on an emergency descent in the case of a fuselage fire. When oxygen is provided for the entire crew, staying at high altitude and depressurizing may help to control fuselage fires.
• During a ditch, who is responsible for sending the emergency message?
• Which condition will cause L2 and L1 SMOKE VALVE STATUS to display SMOKE?
• Which statement is true about GPS signal loss due to AFC-205 power loss to CPRA2, EGI2, or AEU2?
• MOSA is defined as
• The PRC-149 sends out transmissions on what three frequencies in triple beacon mode?
• In flight, a red radar altitude indicates which conditions relating to RALT and BARO?
• In the weapons bay, aircraft flight is authorized with which items in any combination?
• When executing the MK-54 Launch Checklist, the EO/IR turret should be oriented towards the weapon bay to confirm weapon release regardless of turret configuration.
• Which EWSP switch should be used after every mission to remove classified ALE-47 MDF and LAIRCM UDM from EWSP subsystems?
• In health status indicators, which color denotes degraded state or invalid data?
• The service or entry door should not be operated in winds greater than how many knots?
• After descending below MOSA, calls are required on a crew selected CNF/NET at:
• In the weapons bay pre-entry procedure, which statement is true?
• Aircrew should avoid opening rack doors during SFF procedures unless it is to ______.
• The ability to use logical and sound judgement based on the information available is called what?
• The APU Ground Control Panel is located in the ________.
• Portable O2 bottle smoke masks or headset microphones connected to the ICS OBSERVER port are always active.
• Mixed loadings of UNI-PAC III and other authorized weapon bay stores are authorized.
• In flight mode, how many IC segments may be in active TX mode at one time?
• Oxygen depletion may occur prior to the expected usage time derived from the tabulated information on the bottle.
• Prior to powering on CSUs, which circuit breaker must be set?
• Failure to ensure all SSC STS lights are extinguished or at least 10 minutes have passed from power off before proceeding to Mission Equipment Shutdown may result in what?
• What is the maximum KCAS allowed to jettison a venting sonobuoy?
• How long must you wait after mission equipment power down before securing the ECS draw-thru system, ESM cooling system, and radar fan?
• Which module provides in-line data encryption for INMARSAT with MCDS?
• In Fail Safe mode, SPDS retains all power settings that were set prior to entering the mode.
• Who should be informed when responding to main cabin smoke alarms?
• The ditching checklist directs the PM to execute which jettison mode?
• If acoustics is powered on prior to ________ being available, TOMS will lose host duties and acoustics will have to be shut down at the SPDS, causing corruption of the MASP hard drive data.
• Which of the following is a valid MCW Mission Alert condition that requires a swap of the SMC CPU?
• In the ECS Draw Thru system, when placed in smoke mode, the radar fan is secured for how many minutes?
• Firing pneumatic ejectors without a store in place may result in catastrophic failure.
• Configuring the SSU within how many minutes of switching the Secure Switching Unit to ON will ensure TOMS operates at the desired security level?
• The standby control switch in the airstair system affects safety circuits by what action?
• The minimum safe distances for MIDS terminal antenna HERP, HERF, and HERO are:
• There are ____ portable fire extinguishers located throughout the main cabin, flight deck, and galley area.
• Which BIT detail label indicates an unsuccessful SRL launch?
• Use of MSHOT with three or four missile plans may result in momentary two missile asymmetry on one wing during a normal launch sequence.
• If the gate valve is open or in transit and an OIB is initiated, the gate valve will close.
• When inspecting a weapons rack with a loaded weapon, ensure the download handle is in the _____ position?
• What is the lavatory mini oxygen bottle designed to provide?
• When an EJECTOR PRESSURE CMS message is displayed, attempting to execute an EXT Jettison or ALL Jettison may result in which stores configuration?
• In egress path lighting, which color marks the exits?
• During ground operations, AIU Power settings should be less than or equal to how many watts, and HF should be set to which level?
• Which action is recommended when responding to a main cabin smoke alarm?
• In any TOMS software version, a TOMS pressure range for armed stores release is between which psi values?
• Which outcome is associated with failing to retrieve the survival kit prior to an expected procedure?
• When BRU power is ON, a loaded weapon station is SAFE if which indicators are in the required positions?
• There are how many portable 22 cu. ft. capacity oxygen bottles onboard?
• Mission equipment may be routinely shutdown using the Rack Power Cutoff Switch; this method still requires a normal software shutdown.
• (T/F) The E880 rack and power racks E101, E102, E113, and E114 do not contain a smoke detection system.
• The UNI-PAC III SAR Kit is authorized for carriage on which stations?
• With power secured to a SCU, jettisoning the store via JETTISON ALL is:
• (T/F) For aircraft with AFC-205, loss of power to the CPRA2,EGI2 or AEU2 will result in loss of GPS antenna signal to the radars.
• In the TEM model, Mission Effectiveness is defined as what?
• The SMS provides emergency jettison of all kill stores within ______ seconds of command, including door open and close time.
• The LPU-32/P contains a zippered survival items pouch which contains a whistle, a chemical light, and a sea dye marker.
• Under the Torpedo Attack TD, if Tactics Mode is set to Deep, what happens regarding Target Location input?
• Latent conditions are defined as factors that may contribute to errors but are not immediately evident. True or False?
• In the described flight scenario, what is the SRL X gate valve state?
• MAP console permissions can be modified through TOMS.
• In flight with the FMC in Tactical Mode, a buoy loaded in SRL X and no buoy moves pending, the gate valve for SRL X will be what?
• When operating in flight mode, an individual SSPC, or set of three SSPCs for three-phase loads, may be reset _____ after tripping due to overcurrent conditions in a single flight leg.
• During a smoke/fire/fumes emergency, the COTAC will connect headset with in-line keying device to MAP at ______ station, and establish aircrew communications on ______.
• (T/F) In TEM, an Error may occur from mismanaged threats or mistakes.
• At cabin temperature of 30C, the minimum oxygen bottle pressure is 1440 psi.
• Which statement about the border around a weapon station is correct?
• For forward-cabin firefighting duties, what must be inspected in the flight station?
• Selective jettison is indicated by which border on the Stores Status Display?
• Which MCW Mission Alert condition requires a swap of the SMC CPU?
• (T/F) Halon fire suppression may produce decomposition by-products with a sharp acrid odor that may be harmful.
• The Quad External Pre-amplifier can be secured via which rack power cutoff switches? Choose the correct combination.
• Which item is NOT listed as contained in the LPU-32/P survival pouch?
• Which term describes the ability to direct and coordinate crew activities and promote teamwork among aircrew members?
• During selective zeroize, hold spring-loaded switch up for how many seconds to ensure proper zeroization of selected components?
• Oxygen duration for 8 mission crewmembers at a cabin altitude of 18,000 feet is how many minutes?
• Which system must be operative to ensure mission subsystems function properly?
• According to TEM model, a Threat is defined as _____.
• SSQ-XXX employment is limited to a max airspeed of what?
• A MOSA call shall consist of which elements?
• Which is the correct sea dye marker visibility data point?
• All WEAPONS & SONOBUOYS LSKs shall be turned off prior to annotating the WEAPONS & SONOBUOYS SSPCs in LOCKOUT or TRIPPED state.
• Which item is NOT part of the required elements for weapons bay flight authorization?
• The SPDS failure case has which primary mission-crew indication?
• The ON light (power indicator) on the Ground Maintenance Control Panel is extinguished. What does this indicate?
• The sea dye marker is visible at an approximate distance of ___ miles at ____ altitude.